Good day people. Happy Independence Day.
While responding to an issue, I quoted a portion of the Old Testament (in the Bible) and included the fact that " I don't believe that portion applies to the New Testament believer."
The following questions followed:
1. What part of the old testament should apply to the new testament believer and what part should not. Who determines these things?
2. Why do we decide we are new or old testament Christians depending on the situation? After all, when it comes to claiming blessings, we don't care less whether they are declared in the old or new?
My (partial) response to Question 1 was "The Holy Spirit is the one who determines these things. I don't believe that the Old Testament requirements are binding on the NT believer because God isn't operating under that covenant (which was with the Israelites, not the Gentiles, anyway). I'll probably need to write an entire post to address this point with the scriptures to back my position. The conclusion is this - If there was nothing wrong with the Old Testament, there would have been no need for the New Testament that came into force when God accepted Christ' blood...However, we can still LEARN from God's dealings with people of the Old Testament...At least, that's how I see it"
So, I'll start with the promised 'post'. I think it's better to have it as a series so I can go scripture by scripture. Please follow me on this journey and feel free to share (referencing AMA Writes, please) and tag others. Sometime in the course of the series, perhaps when I've exhausted the scriptures that effectively answer Question 1, I'll attempt to answer Question 2. Please feel free to share your thoughts on either question at any time. It'll be nice to have your scriptural references too. Thanks.
I'll start with scriptures in the Old Testament that foretold of a New Testament that was essentially going to replace the Old Testament.
“Behold, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah, not like the covenant that I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, declares the Lord. For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, declares the Lord: I will put My law within them, and I will write it on their hearts. And I will be their God, and they shall be My people. And no longer shall each one teach his neighbor and each his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, declares the Lord. For I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.”
(Jeremiah 31: 31-34, English Standard Version)
I guess I should just share the grace with this alone, right? Lol. If AMA wasn't as scholarly as she is, that's what she would have done. Thankfully, she likes writing so we'll continue the series.
Hebrews 8 references Jeremiah 31: 31-34 and shows us that Christ is the mediator of a better covenant, founded upon better promises.
Hebrews 9 placed the Old and New Covenants side by side, showing us the similarities and differences of each covenant (essentially to prove that the New Covenant is indeed founded on better promises).
The easiest way for me to illustrate is to use the example of a company that enters into 2 separate contracts with 2 different entities for similar services. We know there will be similarities and differences between the 2 contracts. It won't be wise for Contractor A to insist on the Terms and Conditions (T&Cs) of Contractor B's contract. It won't make sense for the Company to expect Contractor B to deliver what was agreed in Contractor A's contract. The expectations on both the Company and the contractor's side are different for each contract.
So, why do we still have the Old Testament in the Bible that New Testament believers read? I'll use the Company, Contractor A and Contractor B scenario again. Let's assume that Contractor B's contract is more recent than Contractor A's contract and is hopefully founded on better promises than Contractor A's contract. The Company should have no qualms giving Contractor B access to the initial contract. First of all, it proves to Contractor B that their contract is an improved one. We won't have been able to verify the claims made in Hebrews 8 and 9 if we didn't have access to Jeremiah 31.
Secondly, it may be helpful to clarify grey areas in Contractor B's contract. I've worked on a couple of projects where we've been required to replicate an existing design BUT ensure that it complies with current legislation. We always request for information on the initial design. Then we review the current legislation. Whenever we find cases where the old design does not meet up with current legislation, we adhere to the terms of our contract (comply with the current legislation).
My first pass response to Question 2 is that since the new covenant is founded on better promises than the old covenant, the blessings in the old covenant are still embedded in the new covenant and there are added blessings too. You may be shortchanging yourself if you limit yourself ONLY to the blessings of the Old Covenant.
In Part 2, I'll look at what the synoptic gospels have to say about the old/new testament. Parts 3, 4 and possibly 5 will focus on what the Epistles have to say about the old/new testament.
Thanks for taking time to read this post. Please feel free to ask questions and/or share your views. If you disagree with anything I've written, please state your views RESPECTFULLY. If you agree, it'll be nice to still hear from you.
Happy new month and I wish my fellow Nigerians a happy Independence Day. Have a blessed and productive day.